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UIM coverage — can I actually use it if I don't have collision? Getting contradictory answers

So I got rear-ended a few weeks ago by someone who clearly wasn't paying attention. Thankfully nothing catastrophic, but my bumper and trunk area took a hit and there's some hidden damage the shop flagged when they got under it. The other driver is at fault — no dispute there — but their liability coverage is pretty thin.

Here's my situation: between the repair estimate, a rental for however long this takes, and replacing two child safety seats that were in the car at the time (which you're apparently supposed to do after any crash, even if they look fine), I'm creeping close to the at-fault driver's property damage limit. Maybe over, depending on what else the shop finds.

So I called my own insurer to ask about using my underinsured motorist (UIM) coverage to fill the gap. First rep said I couldn't use it because I don't carry collision or comprehensive — just liability and UIM. Second rep said the opposite. My agent kind of shrugged and said UIM is basically a legal requirement in my state but "rarely applies" to situations like this.

Now I have three different answers and zero clarity.

I guess my real questions are: 1. What is UIM property damage coverage even for if you can't use it in a situation like this? 2. Has anyone successfully made a UIM claim without having collision on their policy? 3. Is opening a claim through my own insurer going to mess with my rates even if the other driver is 100% at fault?

I feel like I'm going in circles. Any help appreciated.

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